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1) You have a tcp/ip printer connected on an UNIX computer with LPD. You want that all the Microsoft WKS send their print job on a NT Server. How you configure this. Choose 2:
000-513  000-633  310-016  310-615  HP0-053  HP0-762

a - Install LPR on all WKS

b - Install LPD on the Server

c - Install LPD on all WKS

d - Create a share with LPR on the Server
SCWCD  SCWCD Exams  SCWCD Braindumps
e - Make a mapping with the printer port between the Unix computer and the NT Server.

I chosed 'b' and 'd'

but I think that it should be 'b' and 'e'
JNCIA  JNCIA Exams  JNCIA Braindumps  MCITP Exams  MCITP Braindumps  MCITP Braindumps
    2) You want to capture TCP/IP packets and to save them for viewing the statistique later. What do you use.

a - Performance Monitor

b - Network Monitor

I asked 'a' because I didn't remember that we can save with Network monitor.

So answer is 'b'

I haved another senario question that say for required results :

- Need to make the computer ready for routing.
MCSD.NET  MCSD.NET Exams  MCSD.NET Braindumps  MCSE  MCSE Exams  MCSE Braindumps  Bracelets Tiffany
    In the solution, they give you one option in the proposed solutions with 'Enable Routing' but they never talk about LMHOSTS files. So be attentif to the required results : PREPARING is not running. So it works.

    I have no question about the options of : netstat, nbtstat, route, ...

    I also suggest to visit :

http://www.mcpmag.com/members/97mayjun/oe1main.asp

and if you want the method to write down the 4 tables in around 5 minutes, without calculator, I could help you. With these tables you don't need calculator and you save time and stress. I saw the braindump of Laurence (13.4.98) in this braindump veryuseful and the more complete one for reviewing.     Here is my braindump. Sorry I cannot remember the exact wording but the general idea is all I can do:
000-513  000-633  190-611  190-710  1D0-470  1D0-520
    1. A diagram with two subnets. Computer WKT1 and Market server in Subnet One and Server Design in Subnet two. WKT1 can access Design but cannot access Market.

    My answer: invalid subnet mask n WKT1. ( two of choices were about default gateway and router, so you are left with two to choose from )
1D0-532  1Y0-258  1z0-042  310-016  310-615  3x0-104  3x0-202
    2. A Seattle and Washington WINS server needs to replicate ( required ) and at least once a day ( optional ) and another optional I forgot. Then a table showing Seattle’s push partner is Washington and Washington’s pull partner is Seattle. It looks to me that Seattle is pushing and being pulled and therefore Washington’s WINS is not being replicated to Seattle. So I chose Not meeting required result. I could be worng on this one.

    3. A question on a machine "A" doing ARP broadcast when trying to connect to another local machine "B". I choose machine "A" has invalid subnet mask.
920-164  920-166  920-167  9A0-701  9A0-803  a00-203  e20-590
    4. A lot of questions ( easy ones ) on the utility. Example: capture and decode TCP/IP statistics = NETSTA.EXE; charting into spreadsheet – PERFORMANCE MONITOR; look at changes DHCP made = IPCONFIG.EXE; look at netbios and IP file; NBSTAT.EXE; look at IP address to physical address file: ARP.EXE. Notice that none required I need to know the extension. Very easy questions on the utilities. So don’t worry.

    5. Adiagram showing about four NT Server looking like routers. You need to add routes to HOST 2 and HOST 3 ( which are located next to each other with HOST 1 and HOST 4 on either side. Four choices. One choice had the wrong route add command ( missing the MASK. I can’t remember which one I chose but just remember the Route ADD command is Route Add [ destination } MASK [ Subnet Mask ] [ default gateway ].
ee0-512  HP0-053  HP0-460  HP0-762  jn0-201  pk0-002 

    6. The famous LMHost file; You ftp Product and it’s fine but not if you ftp the IP address; You do IPCONFIG and get

123.45.66.7 Engineering Product #………

125.55.66.77 Product #…….
000-636  1z0-101  310-019  310-560  70-218  70-220
I chose The IP for Product is incorrect.

    7. I forgot another question but the answer is ( pick two ) one is one in PDC of the remote domain and one the domain controller in the local domain.

    8. The big scenario question on requiring all windows based machine to connect and UNIX to …..and trap messages ( fairly well covered in other braindumps ) followed by four proposed solutions with each one getting better and better until the last one being meet required and all optionals. Basically you need enable IP forwarding, RIP for dynamic routing table updates, static mapping for UNIX, SNMP for trap messages etc.

    9. A lot of questions refering to You can connect local machine but cannot remote machines whilst others in your subnet is doing fine. Mostly something not right with your machine; e.g. invalid subnet mask or default gateway settings.

    10. Only a few ( about four ) on subnetting, very easy if you prepare the table whilst aswering the survey before the test starts. Always you have X subnets and max. Host what subnet mask……
70-229  70-285  70-301  70-631  HP0-242  mb2-421
    11. Designing network. How many HOST id’s do you need. Answer one for each Router interface and one for each NIC on Host. If question asks how amny NET id’s then it is one for each Subnet and one for each WAN connection.
MB3-430  MB3-451  MB3-006  MB5-538 

    12. Montoring from a UNIX machine . What do you need. I chose on UNIX install SNMP management software and NT server install SNMP Services.

    13. One easy question on TCP/IP printing services. The NT Server to manage as well. On top of TCP/IP printing services configure LPR port and share printer.

640-802  640-801  70-236  640-863

Exam MB5-198 Demo

1.After posting an invoice in Purchase Order Processing what modules can be potentially updated with this posted information? Mark all that apply.MB2-421

A:General Ledger
B:Inventory
C:Payables Management
D:Bank Reconciliation
Correct Answers:  A, B, CMB5-198

2.An invoice was posted before it was printed and sent to the customer.  What windows could be used to print the historical invoice?MB2-421

A:Sales Transaction Entry
B:Sales Batches
C:Print Sales Documents
D:Sales Document Range Inquiry
Correct Answers:  C, DMB5-198

3.When entering a transfer transaction, which characteristic of the default unit cost is true?MB5-198

A: Always defaults with the current cost or standard cost (dependent on valuation method) and cannot be changed
B: Always defaults with current cost or standard cost (dependent on valuation method)  and can be changed
C: Never defaults.  It must be entered by the user
D: Never defaults.  No cost is associated with the transfer transaction because the item isn being sold. Never defaults.  No cost is associated with the transfer transaction because the item isn? being sold.
Correct Answers:  AMB3-234

4.A bin number can be assigned to which of the following?MB3-234

A: Individual assigned site Ids
B: The "All" site ID
C: The site ID defined as the Primary Site
D: Individual assigned and unassigned site Ids
Correct Answers:  AMB3-234

5.What window is used to define what sales document type (quote, order, etc.) will default when opening the Sales Transaction Entry window?MB4-161

A: Receivables Management Setup
B: User Preferences
C: Sales Order Processing Setup
D: Customer Maintenance
Correct Answers:  BMB4-161

6.An invoice can be transferred to which of the following document types?

A: Order and Back Order
B: Back Order
C: Order
D: Back Order and Return
Correct Answers:  BMB4-161

7.Item beginning quantities are entered in what window? MB3-006

A: Item Transaction Entry
B: Purchase Order Entry
C: Item Quantities Maintenance
D: Stock Count Entry
Correct Answers:  AMB3-412

8.Purchase Order Processing Setup allows you to define the item display option.  Once in the Purchase Order Entry window, where can this default display option be changed?MB3-412

A: Item expansion button
B: Extras, then Options on the menu bar
C: Vendor expansion button
D: Purchase Order Processing Setup
Correct Answers:  BMB3-412

9.Which of the following are item types? Mark all that apply. MB3-006

A:Finished Good
B:Kit
C:Flat Fee
D:Sales  Inventory
Correct Answers:  B, C, DMB6-291

10.Which of the following documents can be generated using Quick Print? Mark all that apply. MB3-006

A:Quotes
B:Orders
C:Invoices
D:Packing Slip
Correct Answers:  B, C, DMB6-291

1.A customer has defined their server needs as a four-LPAR 16-way p570 with 64GB of memory, four 10/100/1000 TX LAN adapters, and six fibre channel adapters to external storage in an IBM ESS (Shark).  They like the idea of being able to do SAN maintenance while not incurring downtime.  If all LPARs are production related and similar, which question is most appropriate for the pSeries technical specialist to ask?000-873

A: Would 10/100 Ethernets work as well?
B: Should there be eight fibre channel adapters?
C: Should there be an async adapter for heartbeat?
D: Will all LPARs need access to a common fibre channel tape drive?
Correct Answers:  B000-640

2.A hospital customer with an experienced AIX and Microsoft Windows staff wants to consolidate all of their file/print services onto fewer systems.  They currently use multiple Microsoft Windows-based Intel systems that are experiencing reliability problems.  They also have POWER4+ systems that are running multiple AIX LPARs that have experienced no reliability issues. They need at least 99.99% uptime. Which solution will meet their uptime needs at the lowest cost?000-867

A: Combine the file/print servers onto a larger Intel-based machine (x445).
B: Bring up a Linux LPAR on the pSeries and run Samba to provide file/print services.
C: Bring up another AIX LPAR on the pSeries and run Samba to provide file/print services.
D: Bring up another AIX LPAR on the pSeries and run Connect Direct to provide file/print services.
Correct Answers:  C000-705

3.A customer left a message on the pSeries technical specialist's voicemail that a proposal is needed for a p5-550 4-way 1.4GHz 8GB machine.  The specialist configured a p5-570 4-way 1.5GHz 8GB machine and sent it to the customer with a note that this system was the closest match to that requested.  What could the specialist have done to minimize any customer dissatisfaction in an efficient manner?000-636

A: Configured a p5-550 1.65GHz 8GB machine and emailed it to the customer
B: Spoken to the customer about available machine options and verified which model was desired
C: Configured p5-550 4-way 1.65, p5-570 4-way 1.5, p5-570 4-way 1.65, and p5-570 4-way 1.9 systems to cover all options
D: Emailed the customer to let them know there is no 1.4GHz p5-550, attaching a copy of the pSeries Facts and Features guide
Correct Answers:  B70-299

4.A customer has provided the pSeries technical specialist with details of an HACMP solution that they would like validated.  The solution is for two POWER4+ p630 servers directly attached to a FAStT600 storage server as the shared storage.  Each system has the following: 70-218

? 2 integrated network ports ?
2 fibre channel adapter cards
? 1 power supply and redundant cooling
? HACMP v5.1 70-220

In addition to a second power supply, what further requirements, if any, are needed to validate this solution and ensure no single point of failure?

A: One fibre channel switch
B: Two fibre channel switches
C: Two Ethernet cards
D: Nothing
Correct Answers:  B 70-237

5.Which of the following is the most cost effective required solution to support the boot disks internally for two partitions on a p5-520 running AIX 5.3 without the Advanced Virtualization feature?70-285

A: Optional 4-pack
B: 7311-D20 RIO drawer
C: Optional 4-pack and a 7311-D20 RIO drawer
D: Optional 4-pack attached to a PCI SCSI card
Correct Answers:  D70-301

6.A customer has a failing HBA adapter and needs to identify the location of the adapter.  Which of the following AIX commands should the specialist recommend the customer review?70-621

A: rmdev
B: chdev
C: drslot
D: cfgmgr
Correct Answers:  C70-622

7.A solution provider has proposed a pSeries solution to a new customer.  The solution is complex with a number of technologies that are new to the customer. They have a tight timeline for implementation.  The solution provider has not been able to get a clear understanding as to how the customer will backup the system.  What would be the most appropriate action to address the risks with this solution?70-631

A: Sell Sysback
B: Conduct a SAR
C: Sell Supportline
D: Provide a project timeline
Correct Answers:  B

8.Which of the following people does IBM recommend be involved with a Pre-Sales Solutions Assurance Review?74-131

A: The customer executive who is funding the project
B: IBM Global Financing when they are financing the purchase
C: Subject matter experts representing each component of the solution
D: Hardware installation planning representative responsible for the installation
Correct Answers:  C920-321

9.A pSeries technical specialist has just returned from an internal course for implementing Micro-Partitioning on the POWER5 range of servers.  There were many handouts from the course.  To ensure the rapid transfer of the newly acquired skill, what should the technical specialist do?920-330

A: Make copies of the course material and deliver the course in full to the technical team.
B: Make copies of the course material and hand them out to the technical team for them to read.
C: Become the Micro-Partitioning expert within the organization and act as the sole knowledge base.
D: Make copies of the course material and prepare a concise overview of the course to deliver to the technical team.
Correct Answers:  DMB5-198

10.A customer is very concerned about maintaining a competitive advantage through the use of state-of-the-art technology.  Assuming all solutions meet the customer's technical requirements, which solution should the IBM team propose to maximize customer satisfaction?

A: p690 with Dynamic LPAR
B: Grid of SP switch-attached p5-550s
C: p690 with Advanced POWER Virtualization
D: p5-570 with Advanced POWER Virtualization
Correct Answers:  DMB3-430

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70-229 Training
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1.Adaptive Tape Speed _____.

A: slows down transmission speed if the tape drive cannot handle the load
B: enables the tape drive to adjust its performance to the incoming data rate
C: decompresses incoming data to provide enough performance to keep the drive streaming
D: automatically adjusts the compression ratio to the data type
Correct Answers: BHP0-094 HP0-244 HP0-302 HP0-401

2.Which LED indicates a power fault of the y-axis motor?

A: LED 1 on the upper actuator driver board (AD0)
B: LED 2 on the lower actuator driver board (AD1)
C: LED 1 on the lower actuator driver board (AD1)
D: LED 2 on the upper actuator driver board (AD0)
Correct Answers:  CHP0-538 HP0-786 HP0-841

3.Which connection type has the highest priority when connecting to a Network Storage Router (NSR) through the Interface Manager card?

A: Command View ESL
B: Telnet
C: FTP
D: Serial
Correct Answers:  D

4.Which command on the front panel resets the statistical counters of the library?

A: CALIBRATE ALL CONFIGURATION from the operator menu.
B: CALIBRATE ALL STATISTICS from the operator menu.
C: INITIALIZE NONVOLATILE MEMORY STATISTICS from the service menu.
D: INITIALIZE NONVOLATILE MEMORY CONFIGURATION from the service menu.
Correct Answers:  CHP0-075  HP0-242  HP0-753

5.Click the Exhibit button.

Which library and tape drive firmware must be used for an ESL9322 with Ultrium 460 tape drives and Data Protector?
 
A: Robot firmware 3.48, tape drive firmware F3CW
B: Robot firmware 3.40, tape drive firmware F3CW
C: Robot firmware 3.40, tape drive firmware F43W
D: Robot firmware 3.48, tape drive firmware F43W
Correct Answers:  D HP0-891  HP0-764

6.An ESL9000 library is connected to a Network Storage Router NSR E1200 connected to a Fibre Channel hub. Which NSR E1200 Fibre Channel port parameters can prevent a host with a 1 Gb connection to the same Fibre Channel hub from accessing the ESL9000? Select TWO.

A:Port Mode = N-Port
B:Use Hard AL_PA = disabled
C:Performance Mode = 2 Gb
D:WW Node Name High = 100000E0
E:WW Node Name Low = 0201FF96
Correct Answers:  A, C HP0-638 HP0-638 HP0-764

7.From which Operator Control Panel screen can you configure library options?

A: License
B: Tapes
C: Services
D: Operator
Correct Answers:  D

8.On the Overview screen of the Operator Control Panel, which information on the drive status is NOT provided?

A: cartridge is loaded or unloaded
B: loaded cartridge is write-enabled or write-protected
C: drive error code
D: compression is enabled or disabled
Correct Answers:  C

9.What is the purpose of the Command View ESL?  Select TWO.

A:Storage Management Appliance integration
B:remote server firmware update
C:license key summary
D:remote library power cycle
E:device monitoring
Correct Answers:  C, E

10.The host is connected to which SCSI port of an ESL9595?

A: H
B: M
C: Q
D: R
Correct Answers:  CHP0-197
 

1.Which three activities within the plan phase are performed when assessing the current operations and network management infrastructure and verifying the current capabilities to support a routing and switching solution for the customer, including people, processes, and tools? (Choose three.)646-589 640-861 642-355 642-426
A:Produce a Network Management Operations plan.
B:Produce an Operations Readiness Assessment report.
C:Present and review the Operations Readiness Assessment report.
D:Assess current Network Infrastructure and Network Management applications.
E:Collect and verify Operations and Network Management Infrastructure information.
F:Produce Network Operations specifications and requirements.
Correct Answers: B, C, E

2.What is the correct order for performing the activities in the Change Management service component?642-453 642-533 642-542


A: Originate, Schedule, Execute, Evaluate, Access, Communicate, Close
B: Evaluate, Originate, Schedule, Execute, Access, Communicate, Close
C: Evaluate, Communicate, Accept, Schedule and Execute, Originate, Close
D: Originate, Evaluate, Accept and Schedule, Execute, Communicate, Close
Correct Answers: D

3.Which service component is conducted in the optimize phase?

A: System Acceptance Testing
B: Business Readiness Testing
C: Business Case Alignment
D: Configuration Management
Correct Answers: C642-651 646-011 646-102

4.Which task is part of a Staging Plan Development onsite discovery workshop?646-301 646-653

A: Identify implementation risks.
B: Validate network management design.
C: Verify customer site locations and contacts.
D: Create test cases.
Correct Answers: D

5.Which account planning activity within the prepare phase is performed to plan an account for a customer opportunity?642-071 642-321 642-591 642-691 642-871

A: Assess customer business requirements before planning.
B: Conduct business requirements workshops with the customer.
C: Conduct sales strategy planning sessions.
D: Qualify the customer opportunity before planning.
E: Finalize account qualification with the customer.
Correct Answers: C

6.Which three types of information should be included in a system acceptance test plan? (Choose three.)642-502 642-513 642-577

A:site survey results
B:network resilience tests
C:physical and logical network topology diagrams
D:configurations
Correct Answers: B, C, D

7.Which three activities are conducted as part of resource management plan development? (Choose three.)

A:Perform business readiness.
B:Perform context analysis.
C:Perform needs analysis.
D:Perform learner analysis.
Correct Answers: B, C, D642-831 642-352

8.Which two documents should be part of the Staging Plan Development? (Choose two.)

A:site requirements specification
B:staging project plan
C:bill of materials
D:low-level design template
Correct Answers: A, B640-816 642-551

9.Which two tasks are conducted as part of the Migration Plan Development service component? (Choose two.)

A:Review high-level description of the design requirements, capabilities, features, and functionality of the existing and
proposed infrastructure solution.
B:Analyze the business requirements to identify and align with technology and service requirements.
C:Identify network services to be migrated.
D:Define test scripts, use cases and scenarios that validate both operations and network management and security configurations.
Correct Answers: A, C

10.Which service component within the prepare phase prescribes a set of activities and tasks to create a business case that cites business and financial justifications for a customer considering the benefits of investing and adopting a routing and switching solution?

A: Business Case Development
B: Business Requirements Development
C: High-Level Design Development
D: Operations Strategy Development
E: Technology Strategy Development
Correct Answers: A

On October 29, Microsoft unleashed its latest MCP exam titled "Managing, Organizing, and Delivering IT Projects by Using Microsoft Solutions Framework 3.0." If you're a consultant, technology professional, developer, or project manager who works with or around Microsoft development platforms and technologies, you're likely to find this exam of great interest. (In other words, it's more likely to appeal to those who'd be inclined to earn an MCAD or an MCSDMCSD and the MCSE.
The Microsoft Solutions Framework (MSF) credential aims to identify project managers who have the skills necessary to design, implement, test, and deploy solutions built around Microsoft technologies. Its primary focus is on IT projects approached through a formal MSF methodology. These include the creation and use of formal project teams, separation of features and functions, definition of roles, and assignments of tasks, responsibilities, and functional areas of coverage. Other key topics include risk identification, analysis, and management to limit and reduce the potential impact of problems, delays, and other typical risks to successful project completion. Life cycle management coverage puts entire projects into perspective from startup through planning to solutions development, stabilization and deployment, with additional coverage of how to best manage each phase along the way.
Exam 70-301 is in public release, available at Thomson Prometric and Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide. The 70-301 exam preparation guide is complete, and two courses are also recommended for prospective candidates: than an MSCA or MCSE.) That said, Microsoft does give elective credit for taking this exam toward both the

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2B0-104 2B0-103 2B0-102 642-356 642-355 jn0-350 jn0-341 jn0-541 642-523 646-562 310-091 70-510 642-591 000-864 000-863 000-M19 HP0-920 HP0-919 HP0-918 920-481

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Exam Number：1z0-221
Exam Name：Oracle Certification - Oracle 11i Inventory Management Fundamentals

 

 Exam Number：000-444
Exam Name：IBM Certification - IBM Cert Sol Expert - IBM Content Mgmt - OnDemand Multpltfrm

 

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